I need clarification. My husband & I bought a house & business in France 3 years ago. Both are in our joint names. However, because all the receipts for the purchase are in my husband's sole name (as he opened up a French bank account in my absence so I wasn't able to be included on it) I have been told by a French lawyer that in legal terms EVERYTHING belongs to him in the event of a divorce as his name only is on all the receipts. Even though both contracts are in joint names. The money to purchase the French property/business came from equity from our jointly owned house in the UK. Is anyone able to confirm this situation as it is really upsetting me. I already paid almost 200euors for one hour consultation with the French lawyer so don't want to pay out for wrong advice!. Is anyone on this forum an expert on property/business ownership? many thanks,