I'm not a citizen of the Philippines. I'm married to a person who was born in the Philippines, but is not currently a citizen of the Philippines. My spouse owns real estate within the boundaries set aside for native born non-Filipino citizens. We have no children, my spouses parents are deceased.
My interpretation of what I have discovered via tedious research leads me to believe that, should I outlive my spouse, it matters not if things are testate (with me as heir) or intestate, that 100% of the real property left behind gravitates to my ownership. Am I correct?
I've devoted lots of time to deciphering the "family code", relevant rulings and viewpoints both realistic and inane. I think I have a grip on ancillary subjects (non-citizens cannot pass title to non-citizens and that there will be inheritance taxes). However, I will welcome input from any and all who care to share their thoughts concerning the probability that my research has led me down the right path.
My interpretation of what I have discovered via tedious research leads me to believe that, should I outlive my spouse, it matters not if things are testate (with me as heir) or intestate, that 100% of the real property left behind gravitates to my ownership. Am I correct?
I've devoted lots of time to deciphering the "family code", relevant rulings and viewpoints both realistic and inane. I think I have a grip on ancillary subjects (non-citizens cannot pass title to non-citizens and that there will be inheritance taxes). However, I will welcome input from any and all who care to share their thoughts concerning the probability that my research has led me down the right path.
